[ مختبرات ] : قسم مختبرات مستوى خااااامس

[نور2012]

مساء الخير
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[نور2012]

آآآفا بس ماهقيت والله
المشاهدات 50
ومحد رد

[متفآئله خير]

اب اب اب

[تيمون]

الجداول ونزلت ايش مستنين ليش ماتنزلوا المواد

[ريحانه~]

?????

[ريحانه~]

????????

[عالم الغموض]

صباحكم عسل يالحلوين ...

أنا عندي مجموعة اسئلة بس للأمانة ما اعتمد لكم هي في المذاكرة ..

المذاكرة في الاول والاخير الكتاب ثم الكتاب ...

وهذي هي الاسئلة
الفيروسات
Virology

1- Viruses can be classified to DNA and RNA viruses according to their …………..
a- Morphology.
b- Physical properties.
c- Biological properties.
d- Genome.

2- The affinity of certain virus to certain tissue is referred as to …………………….
a- Attraction.
b- Tropism.
c- Specialty.
d- None of the above.

3- Asymptomatic viral infections are known as ……………….
a- Latent infection.
b- Chronic infection.
c- Acute infection.
d- None of the above.

4- …………… is the yield (numbers) of new viruses from a viral infected cell.
a- Productivity.
b- Infectivity.
c- Burst size.
d- Release size.

5- During viral replication cycle the step of macromolecular synthesis includes ……..
a- Synthesis of regulatory enzymes.
b- Viral genome replication.
c- Synthesis of structural proteins.
d- All the above.

6- During viral replication cycle the release of naked viruses takes place through ………….
a- Cell lysis.
b- Budding.
c- Translocation.
d- Fusion.

7- The first step of viral replication cycle is ……………….
a- Release.
b- Maturation.
c- Recognition.
d- Penetration.

8- …………. take place when the initial site of viral infection is the main site of viral replication.
a- Systemic infection.
b- Localized infection.
c- Central infection.
d- Partial infection.

9- Incubation period of viral localized infection is ………. than (to) its of systemic one.
a- Longer.
b- Shorter.
c- Similar.
d- Slightly longer.
10- Viral latent infection usually takes place in ……………..
a- Actively dividing cells.
b- Non-dividing cells.
c- Neurons.
d- B and C.

11- During viral replication cycle there is (are) ………… translation process(es).
a- 1.
b- 2.
c- 3.
d- 4.

12- According to viral genomes the abbreviation ssRNA is stands for ………………
a- Straight Strip of Replicated Nucleic Acid.
b- Short Strand of Ribonucleic Acid.
c- Single Strand of Ribonucleic Acid.
d- Safe Strip of Replicated Nucleic acid.

13- Viral particles without envelope are known as …………………
a- Covered viruses.
b- Naked Viruses.
c- Coated Viruses.
d- Embedded Viruses.

14- Viral target cell is known as ………………
a- Parent cell.
b- Host cell.
c- Accepted cell.
d- Incubating cell.

15- Baltimore system classified viruses into ……………… groups.
a- 5.
b- 6.
c- 7.
d- 12.

16. Gene expresion means :
a. information flow from gene to protein
b. polymer of RNA
c. agremation of proten
d. substution of gene

17. Virus pathogenesis is :
a. ability of virus to produce a disease
b. virus replication
c. virus metabolic
d. virus shape

18. Molcular identification include
a. polymerase chain reaction ( PCR )
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. all above true




19. Indirect diagnosis of virus include
a. Enzyme immuno assay (ELISA )
b. shadow technique astaining
c. Microscopically
d. no correct answer

20. The names of viruses may reflect the follwing
a. size
b. place of discover
c. disease cause
d. all above true

21. General character of viruses is
a. contain only DNA or RNA
b. contain a nuclei
c. see with nicked eye
d. contain flagella

22. Detection of viruses size can be by the follwing methods
a. electronic microscopy
b. ultra-filtration
c. Gram stain
d. A and B are true

23. RNA viruses are …
a. single strand
b. double strand
c. triple strand
d. no correct answer.

24. Functions of viruses nucleic acid are..
a. carries the genetic information
b. control all the virus characters
c. carries the genetic codes for proteins
d. all above true.

25. The viruses mode of transmission ..
a. injection
b. Inhalation
c. by mosquito
d. a & b are true.

26. Factor which control virus pathogenesis are
a. virus virulence virus factor
b. virus M.W
c. metabolic and nutrational status
d. A and C are true

27. These are different uses of DNA probe except
a. diagnostic of infections disease
b. use use in differentiall diagnosis
c. classification factor
d. used for expharation of genetic structure


28. In PCR ……………specific primers must be used:
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Non of the above.

29. All the followings are post amplification (Detection) methods except:
a. Dot Blot Hybridization.
b. Agar gel electrophoresis.
c. ELIZA.
d. Southern Blot Hybridization.

30. Primers typically consist of:
a. 10-20 bases.
b. 20-30 bases.
c. 50-70 bases.
d. 100-200 bases.

,... ودعواتكم عاد لا تسنونا من الدعاء ..

[عالم الغموض]

يتبع ..

وهذي كمان اسئلة clinical Histotechnology

ولا تنسوى زي ماقلنا المذاكرة من الكتاب أول ...

A-Choose the best answer

1. Histopathology involves
(a) Microscopic examination of tissue
(b) Diagnosis of infective and inflammatory condition
(c) Prognostic information
(d) All of the above

2. Cytopathology include
(a) Exfoliative cytology
(b) Mycology
(c) A & d
(d) Aspiration cytology

3. Situ hybridization require
(a) DNA probe
(b) radioisotope
(c) A & b
(d) Not all of the above

4. Immunohistochemistry is used for
(a) Typing poorly differentiated toumor
(b) Classification of glomerulonephritis
(c) A &b
(d) Not all of the above

5. Cytogenetics and molecular pathology are plying role in:
(a) Clinical pathology
(b) Diagnosis of malaria
(c) A &b
(d) Non of the above

6. Mechanism of cellular injury
(a) The duration of the injury
(b) The ability of the tissue to regenerate
(c) The nature of the injurious agent
(d) All of the above



7. physical agents that cause cellular injury include
(a) truma
(b) toxins
(c) bacterial
(d) juice

8. chemicals agents that cause cellular injury include
(a) truma
(b) toxins
(c) bacterial
(d) juice

9. infectious organisms that cause cellular injury include
(a) truma
(b) toxins
(c) bacterial
(d) juice

10. dificiency of metabolites is one of mechanism of cellular injury which include:
(a) oxygen, glucose and hormon
(b) truma and osmotic pressure
(c) free radicals
(d) respiratory poisns

11. dificiency of metabolites is one of mechanism of cellular injury which include:
(a) oxygen, glucose and hormon
(b) truma and osmotic pressure
(c) free radicals
(d) respiratory poisns


12. the causes of mechanical disruption of cell which cause cellular injury include:
(a) oxygen, glucose and hormon
(b) truma and osmotic pressure
(c) free radicals
(d) respiratory poisns

13. the causes of cell membrane damage which cause cellular injury include:
(a) oxygen, glucose and hormon
(b) truma and osmotic pressure
(c) free radicals
(d) respiratory poisns

14. the term "Necrosis" means:
(a) cell death due to ischemia, metabolic and truma
(b) Programmed cell death
(c) apoptosis
(d) Non of the above

16. Types of necrosis is
(a) Colliquative
(b) Coaqulative
(c) A & b
(d) Not all of the above

17. Bacteria responsible for necrosis is
(a) E.coli
(b) Salmonella
(c) Clostridium
(d) All of the above

18. Apoptose is
(a) Programmed cell death
(b) Necrosis
(c) A & b
(d) Non of the above

19. ………………… induced by physiological or pathological stimuli and accour in single cell:
(a) apoptosis
(b) necrosis
(c) immune
(d) All of the above

20. ……………. Due to pathological injury:
(a) apoptosis
(b) necrosis
(c) immune
(d) All of the above

مع الاسف حتى عندي ماهي محلولة ...

وموفقين يارب ...

[عالم الغموض]

يتبع ...

وهذي أسئلة Blood Banking ...

Blood banking
1. Rh antigens are
(a) Glycolipids
(b) Proteins
(c) Lipoprotein
(d) Carbohyderate
2. In according to grade of agglutination of red cells, 3+ mean
(a) One solid aggregates
(b) All cells are free
(c) Tiny aggregates
(d) Several large aggregates
3. The normal frequency of donation is
(a) Four times a year
(b) Two or three times a year
(c) Five times a year
(d) 1 times a year
4. …………. Means sensitized cells come into contact each other
(a) Immunity
(b) Agglutination
(c) Immune reaction
(d) Hemolysis
5. The acceptable minimum concentration of Hb for donation is
(a) 12.5 g\dl
(b) 10 g\dl
(c) 4 g\dl
(d) 5 g\dl
6. Platelets become non functioning after ………..of storage
(a) 24 h
(b) 48 h
(c) 4 days
(d) 3 days
7. The following are mandatory tests for safing blood transfusion except
(a) HBsAg
(b) Anti HCV
(c) Serum Urea
(d) VDRL
8. CPDA-1 store blood for
(a) 35 days
(b) Year
(c) 42 days
(d) 6 days
9. Which of the following component is stored at -30 for 1 yea
(a) WBC
(b) FFP
(c) Platelets
(d) Whole blood
10. The following are indication of Cryoprecipitate transfusion except
(a) Hemophilia A
(b) Von Willebrand disease
(c) Aquired FVIII deficiency
(d) Hemophilia B
11. FFP is collected and frozen with in …………. of collection at -70c
(a) 8 h
(b) 4 h
(c) 3 days
(d) 24 h
12. Store Plasma can be used for the treatment of
(a) Factor VIII deficiency
(b) Protein deficiency
(c) Stable coagulation factors deficiency
(d) F VII deficiency
13. Which of the following is advers reactions
(a) Hemolytic reactions
(b) Febrile reaction
(c) Allergic reaction
(d) All of the above
14. Which of the following is transfusion- associated infectious risks
(a) Bacterial contamination
(b) Cancer
(c) Gardia
(d) All of the above
15. Which of the following factor is cryoprecipitate
(a) F VIII
(b) FV
(c) F IX
(d) F X
16. Which of the the following is used as long -term storage of RBCs
(a) Glycerol
(b) Plasma
(c) Alcohol
(d) Saline
17. Frozen- thawed red blood cell indicates for the following except
(a) To minimize allergic transfusio reaction
(b) Patient with rare blood group
(c) To minimize sensitization to leukocyte and platelet Ags
(d) Patient with Heamophilia
18. Cryoprecipitate stored up to 12 month at
(a) Room temperature
(b) -18 to -30 C
(c) 37C
(d) -170C
19. ………………Is the cold insoluble portion of Fresh-frozen Plasma
(a) Cryosupernatant
(b) Frozen thawed RBCs
(c) Cryoprecipitate
(d) Platelet concentrates
20. Which of the following blood group system was discovered firstly
(a) ABO
(b) Rh
(c) MNS
(d) Duffy
• The following are mandatory test for screening blood except
• HIV
• HCV antibody
• HBsAg
• Rubbela
22. The contraindications of autologous blood transfusion are
• active bacterial infection
• hemoglobin less than 11gm\dl
• A&B
• Non of the above
23. Fresh frozen plasma is used for treatment of patient
• with congenital or acquired coagulation factor deficiency
• on warfarin anticoagulant that has active bleeding
• A&B
• non of the above
24. The type of transfusion reaction include
• haemolytic transfusuon reaction
• Immediately advers effect
• Delayed adverse effect
• All the above
25. Haemolytic transfusuon reaction (HTR) technical error are due to
• error of blood grouping of patient recipient sample
• error in the cross matching
• inadequate cross matching
• all the above
26. Naturally occurring antibodies are found regularly in which system?
• ABO
• Rh
• Kell
• Kidd
27. The characteristic of slide cross matching method are
• less sensitive
• not capable of detecting weak antigen
• use in cases of emergency
• all of the above
28. In serum grouping (reverse grouping) the serum donor/patient is tested against known cell of
• Group A
• Group B
• Group O
• all above
29. The clinical significant sub group which are detected in lab are
• A1, A2
• A1 B
• A2 B
• all above


30. Blood group A has
• A antigen on the red cell
• B antigen on the red cell
• AB antigen on the red cell
• Non of the above
31. Blood group B has
• B antigen on the red cell
• D antigen on the red cell
• AB antigen on the red cell
• Non of the above
32. Antibody that directed against the individual's own red cells are called
• infectious antibody
• autoantibody
• HLA antibody
• ABO antibody
33. The routine antigen for Rh which carried out in the most blood banking is
• D antigen
• E antigen
• d antigen
• C antigen
34. Blood group O has
• anti A on the serum
• anti B on the serum
• anti A anti B on the serum
• Non of the above
35. The major histocombatibility system in the human is called
• ABO system
• hunan leukocyte antigen
• Kell blood group system
• Kidd blood group system
36. In major cross matching we mixed
• doner's cell + patient serum
• patient's cells +doner's serum
• patent's plasma+doner's serum
• Non of the above
37. The universal donor is
• group O
• group B
• group AB
• group A
38. The anti sera A color is
• colorless
• Blue
• yellow
• red
39. The anti sera AB color is
• blue
• red
• yellow
• colorless
40. The anti sera used in DU test must be contain
• IgM monoclonal
• IgM polyclonal
• IgG either monoclonal or polyclonal
• A&B
41. Antibodies are
(a) Immunoglobulin
(b) Enzyme
(c) Alpha-1 acid glycoproteins
(d) Hormone
42. ABH antigens are
(a) Glycolipids
(b) Proteins
(c) Lipoprotein
(d) Glycoprotein
43. Specificity of blood group antibodies is determined by
(a) 2- mercaptomethanol treatment
(b) Autoimmune diseases
(c) Chromatography
(d) A&C
44. Immune Surveillance means
(a) Inflamation
(b) Resistance and distruction of cancer
(c) Immune response
(d) Antiginicity
45. …………. Means sensitized cells come into contact each other
(a) Immunity
(b) Agglutination
(c) Immune reaction
(d) Hemolysis
46. WBCs become non functioning after ………..of storage
(a) 24 h
(b) 48 h
(c) 4 days
(d) 5 days
47. Platelets become non functioning after ………..of storage
(a) 24 h
(b) 48 h
(c) 4 days
(d) 5days
48. The coagulation factors V and VIII lose their activity with in
(a) 24 h
(b) 48 h
(c) 72 h
(d) 5 days
49. ACD store blood for
(a) 21 days
(b) Year
(c) 50 days
(d) 6 days
50. FFP is stored at -30c for about
(a) 3 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 5 years
(d) 2 year
51. The following are indication of fresh blood transfusion
(a) Exchange blood transfusion
(b) Requirement of platelets
(c) A&b
(d) Chronic anemia
52. FFP is collected and frozen with in …………. of collection at -70c
(a) 8 h
(b) 4 h
(c) 3 days
(d) 1 h
53. Store Plasma can be used for the treatment of
(a) Factor VIII deficiency
(b) Protein deficiency
(c) Stable coagulation factors deficiency
(d) Platelet disorders
54. Which of the following is advers reactions
(a) Hemolytic reactions
(b) Febrile reaction
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) A&b
55. Which of the following is transfusion- associated infectious risks
(a) Hypertention
(b) Viral infections
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Thyrodism
56. Which of the following factor(s) is or are cryoprecipitate
(a) F VIII
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Platelets
(d) A&B
57. To prepare Frozen- thawed red blood cell, RBCs frozed in
(a) Glycerol
(b) Plasma
(c) Alcohol
(d) Citrate
58. Frozen- thawed red blood cell indicates for the following except
(a) To minimize allergic transfusio reaction
(b) Patient with rare blood group
(c) To minimize sensitization to leukocyte and platelet Ags
(d) Patient with Heamophilia
59. Cryoprecipitate stored at -18 to -30 up to
(a) 2 years
(b) 12 month
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
60. ………………Is the cold insoluble portion of Fresh-frozen Plasma
(a) Cryosupernatant
(b) Frozen thawed RBCs
(c) Cryoprecipitate
(d) Platelet concentrates
61. Which of the following blood group system was discovered firstly
(a) ABO
(b) Rh
(c) MNS
(d) Duffy
62. ABO blood group was inherited in Chromosome number
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 1
63. ABO antibodies are
(a) IgM
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgE
64. ………… Blood group contain anti-B in the serum
(a) B
(b) A
(c) O
(d) AB
65. The A red cell which react with anti-A and A1 is designated as
(a) A1
(b) A
(c) A2
(d) A &B
66. A2 blood group represent about………of Ablood group
(a) 80%
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%
67. Which of the following is weak expression of D antigen
(a) D x
(b) Du
(c) A
(d) B
68. HLA antigens are foun on chromosome
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 1
69. HLA antigens are devided into
(a) HLA-A, HLA-B&HLA-C
(b) HLA-B,HLA-D& HLA-E
(c) HLA-C&HLA-A
(d) HLA-B,HLA-D& HLA-E
70. AIHA may be secondary to
(a) Lymphomas
(b) Anemia
(c) SLE
(d) A&C
71. The antibodies contain kappa or lambda light chains known as:
• Monoclonal antibodies
• Polyclonal antibodies
• All of the above
• None of the above
72.Binding of antigen and antibody, in vitro or in vivo with or without agglutination called:
• Hemolysis
• Sensitization
• Neutralization
• None of the above
73. The serum contains anti-IgG and anti-C3d:
• Polyspecific-1
• Polyspecific-2
• Monospecific
• None of the above
74. AHG is used for detection of:-
• Complete Abs
• Incomplete Abs
• All of the above
• None of the above
75. Poly specific-2 coomb`s reagent contain:-
• Anti-IgG
• Anti C3d
• Anti C3b
• All of the above
76. Direct antiglobulin test is used to diagnose:
• Hemolytic transfusion reaction
• Drug induced sensitization
• Autoimmunhemolytic anemia
• All of the above
77. The donor is deferred if gives a positive history of:
• Allergic disorders
• Epilepsy
• TB
• All of the above
78. Febrile reaction is
(a) Hemolytic reactions
(b) Chemical reaction
(c) Advers reactions
(d) Reverse reaction
79. Which of the following is not a transfusion- associated infectious risks
(a) Bacterial contamination
(b) Viral infections
(c) Malaria
(d) Gardia
80. IgG antibodies are
(a) Immunoglobulin
(b) complete antibodies
(c) React at 37c
(d) a& c
81. The Rh negative patient should received blood from
• Rh – positive donor
• Rh – negative donor
• Rh – positive patient
• D)Non of the above
82. The anti D sera used are
• polyclonal anti D sera
• monoclonal anti D sera
• A&B
• non of the above
83. The ABO antigen expressed on
• erythrocytes
• leukocytes
• platelets
• all the above
84. The complications of transfusion reaction are …………except
• Sweating
• dizziness
• low blood pressure
• diarrhea
85. The applications of HLA antigen typing are
• transplantation
• transfusion
• A&B
• Non of the above
86. In the ABO system blood groups were divided in to
• A
• B
• AB
• All the above
87. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is
• collect from single donor
• collect by plasma apheresis
• Frozen within 4 hr at -70
• All the above
88. The most important biochemical change in the storaged blood is
• loss of potassium from red cell
• loss of intake of sodium from plasma
• A&B
• non above
89. Which blood group system was discovered first?
• ABO
• MNS
• P
• Rh
90. Autologous blood transfusion is
• transfusion of patient own blood
• done with Bombay group
• used to minimized risk of transfusion disease.
• all above
91. The indicate for whole blood transfusion are
• active bleeding
• packed cell not available
• A &B
• D)Non above
92. The following are screening tests in blood banking except
• Hb
• Blood grouping
• Anti HCV
• glucose
93. Hb estimated before donation by used
• copper sulphate
• flamphotometer
• autoclave
• non above
94. The indication for long term storage in frozen state included are
• Bombay group
• Autologous blood transfusion
• A &b
• Non of the above
95. The following component can be separated from a single unit 450 ml blood packed red cell
• platelet concentrated
• fresh frozen plasma
• all the above
• Non of the above
96. The indication for exchange transfusion are hemolytic disease of newborn HDN
• Sickle cell anaemia
• hyperglycemia
• a&b
• all of the above
97. Autologous blood transfusion is
• transfusion of patient own blood
• done with Bombay group
• used to minimized risk of transfusion disease
• all above
98. The plasma component is
• fresh frozen plasma
• storage liquid plasma
• packed red cell
• A&B
99. Cryoprecipitate are consist of
• fibrinogen
• serum
• white blood cells
• RBCs
100. Bleeding room should be equipped with the following
• emergency kid
• anti emetic
• A&B
• non above